Our website is www.pattayabridge.com                             Club News Sheet – No. 278 

Our blogsite is www.pattayabridge.wordpress.com                                 

My home phone is 038 422924 and my mobile number is 083 6066880                   9th Mar 2008

It is best to use my home number to contact me unless I am at the bridge club.

My e-mail is terry@pattayabridge.com or pattayabridge@yahoo.com

My MSN messenger ID is tj_quested@hotmail.com

       
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Mon 3rd    N-S     1st    Jeremy & Sally               74%       2nd    Holger & Terry                       58%

                E-W     1st    Agne & Britta S              60%       2nd    Hans v & Lars G                    56%

Wed 5th    N-S     1st    Gerry & Per-Ake           54%       2nd    Jean-Charles & Kenneth         53%

                E-W     1st    Hans V & Lars G           69%       2nd    John & Anne (UK)                 53%

Fri 7th        N-S     1st    Bob & Jo                       59%       2nd    Mike & Terry                         56%

                E-W     1st    Bob & Judy                    56%       2nd    Lars B & Lars G                    56%

 

Bidding Quiz                   

 

Hand A           Hand B           What do you open with Hand A?

 

Q3                94                        

KJ3              Q9                With Hand B you open 1 and partner bids 1. You then reverse

Q875            KQ82           into 2 and partner bids 2, what do you do now?

KJ107          AKQ93

                                   

 

Hand C           Hand D           What do you open with Hand C?

 

1094             KJ64         

42                 62                 With Hand D it is favourable vulnerability. LHO opens 1 which

Q                  KJ1094         partner doubles, what do you do?

AKQJ942     53

                                             

 

Bidding Sequence Quiz

                               

E      1NT   pass   2     pass       (a) Is 2 weak, invitational or forcing?

2      pass   2                   (b) How many ’s and how many ’s does the 2 bidder have?    

F      1      pass   2      3         The 3 bid is pretty much irrelevant; what is 4?

        4                                                           

 

 


Failing to open a Gambling 3NT is a real gamble          Board 26 from Friday 7th   

 

Dealer:             Q82                                            Table A

South               A873                                          West(C)     North         East            South

E-W vul           AK109                                       3   (1)      dbl             pass           3      (2)

                        65                                              all pass

 

1094                  N             K76                      Table B

42                  W    E          KQJ                     West(C)     North         East            South

Q                       S              8732                   3NT  (1)     pass   (3)    4     (4)  all pass

AKQJ942                          1087                  

                        AJ52                                         

10965                                        

J654                                           

3                                               

 

Table A:     (1)  What did you open with this West hand C in this week’s quiz? This West did not know whether to open 1, 3, 4 or 5 and eventually settled for 3as he did not want to bid past 3NT in case partner had a good hand.

(2)  This is the best response – pick the lowest 4-card major, much better than 3.

Table B:     (1)  Now this is the answer to West’s dilemma with Hand C. The gambling 3NT describes this hand perfectly – a completely solid 7 card minor with nothing more than a queen outside.

(3)   This North hand is not strong enough to double and force partner to bid at the 4-level.

(4)   And playing the Gambling 3NT East knows exactly what to do. He knows that the opponents have both major suit aces plus loads of tricks in the minor that partner does not have. So he bids 4 (pass or correct).

 

And what happened? 3 made exactly for a clear top to N-S. 4 went -1 for about average.

The bottom lines: -

-         Understand the Gambling 3NT, it’s an excellent convention.

-         The gambling 3NT is not gambling at all! Responder knows the situation exactly and knows whether to leave it in or what other action to take.

 


Open 1 or 1 when 4-4 in the minors?              Board 21 from Monday 3rd   

 

Dealer:             Q3                                             

North               KJ3                                            West(D)     North(A)    East            South

N-S vul            Q875                                          -                 1    (1)      dbl   (2)      pass   (3)

                        KQ107                                      pass (4)      pass

 

KJ64                 N             A10752          (1)  What did you open with this North hand A in

62                   W    E          AQ5                     this week’s quiz? I have very strong views about

KJ1094               S              A6                        these hands that are 4-4 in the minors and I will

53                                      A94                     always open 1♣.

                        98                                         (2)  This is best, the hand is too good for a simple

109874                                       1 overcall.

32                                         (3)  There’s nothing South can do but pray.    

J862                                     (4)  What did you bid with this West hand D in

this week’s quiz? With these great trumps (the intermediated are very important) and at this vulnerability pass is best.       

 

And what happened? E-W can make 13 tricks in ’s but nobody found slam. Anyway, 1 doubled went -5 for 1400 and a clear top to E-W even if others had bid a small slam.

The bottom lines: -

-         Expert opinion is divided as to whether to open 1 or 1 when holding 4-4 in the minors. I cannot see the problem and to me a 1 opening is obviously best – you increase your chances of finding a fit. I simply cannot see any logic whatsoever in opening 1 with this North hand. Open 1 and you have no rebid problem: raise 1 to 2, raise 1 to 2 (or bid 1NT if you prefer), and bid 1NT over 1. What is the point of opening 1?? Does opener intend to rebid 2 (thus promising 5 ’s) over a 1/ response?? Of course not - well, not anybody who remotely understands bidding. So a 1 opening is nonsense. Agreed?

The bottom lines: -

-         When 4-4 in the minors, always open 1 if 1NT is not available.

-         We all know to bid 4-card suits up the line, and that includes the 1opening.

-         In fact, you should always open your lowest 4-card suit, even if 4441, 4414, 4144 or 1444, see Conventions > section 3 > 4441 type shape hands.

-         Most other North’s opened the obvious 1 and had no problem, with every other E-W ending up in 4making +2 or +3.

-         Note that the silly 1 makes 5 less tricks than 1!

 

 

Dave’s Column         Here is this week’s Dave input involving the best play for the contract.

 

North               South                     You are South, declarer in 6 and West leads a low , how

AJ10876       KQ9                   do you play the hand?

J54               AQ32                                  

J76               A4                                       

K.                AJ105

                                                       

                                               


Dave’s Column answer                      Board 19 from Wednesday 5th 

 

   

Dealer:             AJ10876                                     West          North         East            South

East                  J54                                             -                 -                 pass           2NT

Both vul            J76                                              pass           3              pass           3

                        K                                               pass           6              all pass

               

5                         N             432                 How do you play in 6with the 3 lead?

K108              W    E          97                  

K953                  S              Q1082            You have a loser and a possible loser. One

Q9876                               432                can be ruffed in dummy, and a can be discarded    

                        KQ9                                     on the A. The contract would then depend     

AQ32                                   upon the finesse. Maybe you can do better.

A4                                      

AJ105                                  Take a look at the suit.

 

What if you win with the A, cash the K, draw three rounds of trumps ending in hand, discard a on the A and then lead the J intending to discard another if it is not covered?

If the J is covered, ruff, enter hand with the A and discard the remaining on the 10; concede a and score up the slam.

If the J loses to the Q with East then you still have the 10 available for one discard and still have the finesse available for your contract.

By playing the ’s before ’s you avoid the finesse whenever the Q is in the West hand.

 

The bottom lines: -

-     Always be on the lookout for loser on loser plays (two or more equals facing a void with one higher card outstanding).

 

And what happened at the Pattaya bridge Club?  Nobody bid 6. The results were 7-1, 6NT=, 5s+1, 4+2 (twice) and 4=.

 

 

 

Dave’s 2nd Column   Here is Dave’s 2nd input involving the best play for the contract.

 

West                East                  You are East, declarer in 3NT and South leads the 2, plan

3                   KQ64           the play.

AJ864          3                

AKQJ2        765            

KJ                A8764                                       

                                                     


Dave’s 2nd Column answer              Board 20 from Wednesday 5th  

 

   

Dealer:             J987                                           West          North         East            South

West                KQ107                                       1              pass           1              pass

both vul            843                                             3              pass           3NT           all pass

                        Q5                                            

 

3                         N             KQ64             South leads the 2, plan the play.        

AJ864            W    E          3                          

AKQJ2              S              765                 You have 9 tricks – don’t compress them into 8!          

KJ                                      A8764            Count them, you have 5 ’s, 2 ’s and 1 off the       

                        A1052                                  top and with an easy 9th trick from the suit.    

952                                       So what’s the problem?

109                                       The problem is greed and/or no planning.   

10932                                  In order to develop your 9th trick in ’s you need         

a sure re-entry to the East hand. You have exactly that in the A.

 

You should play the K at trick one, reserving the A as the future entry to the suit. If you play the J and North produces the Q – 9 tricks have suddenly become 8.

 

And what happened at the Pattaya Bridge Club? Everybody bid and made 3NT, sometimes with an overtrick or three. At more than one table South led the 10 and then declarer cannot really go wrong.

 

The bottom lines: -

-         Don’t make a move as declarer until you have counted your sure tricks.

-         When the opponents bid 3 suits and end up in NoTrumps, it’s usually best to lead the unbid suit.


Who Overbid?                                                      Board 21 from Wednesday 5th   

N-S got too high here, who would you blame?

 

Dealer:             AK1073                                     West          North         East            South(B)

North               542                                             -                 pass           pass           1

N-S vul            965                                            pass           1              pass           2      (1)

                        65                                              pass           2    (2)      pass           3      (3)

pass           4    (4)      all pass

J52                    N             Q86               

J1086            W    E          AK73             (1)  A reverse, showing around 16 pts and forcing.

A74                  S              J103                (2)  This is a weak bid and is fine.

742                                    J108               (3)  What did you bid with this South hand B in

                        94                                               this week’s quiz? In my opinion South has

Q9                                              little more than already promised and with

KQ82                                         just two small ’s I would pass.

AKQ93                                (4)  This is a bit closer but I would like a 6th or a slightly better hand to bid game. I would pass.

 

And what happened? Two N-S’s bid 4 and went one down. Others stopped in 2 making +1 to share the top. Note that game is not even close, N-S only make 9 tricks because the ’s break 3-3.

The bottom lines: -

-     If you have shown your hand (with a reverse) and have nothing more to show, then pass partner’s minimum response.

-     To answer the question, South was mostly to blame.

 

 

 

Bidding Quiz Answers

 

 

Hand A:     1. There is absolutely no sense whatsoever in opening 1 and it may well cost (indeed, it cost 1400 points!).

Hand B:     Pass. You have already bid your hand and your support is very minimal.

Hand C:    3NT. This is a classic Gambling 3NT – a solid running 7-card minor with no more than a queen outside.

Hand D:    Pass. With these excellent trumps (intermediates) go for the penalty, especially at this vulnerability – two down will net you more than a game your way. This is one of the very rare hands where it is clearly best to pass partner’s take-out double.

 

Bidding Sequence Answers

                               

E      1NT   pass   2     pass       (a) 2 is a weak bid and opener is expected to pass.

2      pass   2                   (b) Responder should have 5 ’s and 4 ’s.           

F      1      pass   2      3         For me, this 4 bid is a splinter looking for slam; 3 would

4                                        be forcing (possibly natural) so 4 must be a splinter.