Club News Sheet – No. 173   25th  Feb 2006


                                    Winner                                                   Runner-up


Mon   20th N-S   1st    Bob Short/John Gavens  59% 2nd    Bill/Mike(Can)                        57%

                  E-W   1st    Gerry/Sid                         62%       2nd    Chuck/Terry                   61%

Wed  22nd N-S    1st    Bill/Mike(Can)                  58%       2nd    Mr&Mrs Chauveau        56%

E-W   1st    Hans(Ger)/Fred                62%       2nd    Dave/Tom                      60%

Fri      24th  N-S   1st    John Gavens/Gerry           56%       2nd    Phil/Tomas                     54%

                  E-W   1st    Alan/Clive                        59%       2nd    Jean-Charles/Anton        58%


A mixed bag of results this week, but I note that Bill/Mike are still up there.


Bidding Quiz                           Standard American is assumed unless otherwise stated


Hand A            Hand B            With Hand A partner opens 1 in first seat, what do you bid?


KQ10982     Q96           

-                   K943            With Hand B you open 1, LHO overcalls 1, partner doubles

J10752          A7                (negative) and RHO bids 3. What do you do?

73                K1053


Hand C            Hand D            With Hand C you open 1 and partner responds 1NT.

(a) What do you bid? (b) Would your answer be any different

K962            A9853          if you play 2/1 and so a forcing 1NT?         

AQ1053       7

A10              AK9742       With Hand D partner opens 1, (a) what do you bid?

AQ               7                  (b) Would your answer be different if you play 2/1?


Hand E             Hand F             With Hand E partner opens 1, what do you bid?


K109            K943            With Hand F RHO opens 1 and you double. LHO redoubles

AQ32           AJ43            and this is passed round to you and you bid 1. LHO doubles,

Q10              A                  partner bids 1 and RHO bids 1NT. What now?

AK52           KJ76


Hand G            Hand H            (a) What do you open with Hand G?          

(b) Suppose you open 1 and partner responds 1, then what?

K4                A9               

A7                5                   What do you open with Hand H?

QJ42             K52                                           

AJ1043        AKQ10942 


Hand J             Hand K            With Hand J LHO opens 1, partner overcalls 1 and RHO

                                                doubles (negative). What do you do?

42                 AJ87                                          

A72              Q982            With Hand K partner opens 1 and RHO doubles, what do

J86                KJ2               you do?

AJ864          98

Bidding Sequences Quiz        All of the following occurred this/last week.


L    1  1  dbl  3                  The first dbl is negative, what is the 2nd double?


M   1  1  dbl  3                  What is 3, weak or strong?


There is no intervention in the following sequences: -


N   1 - 4NT                           What is 4NT?

P    1 - 4                              What is 4?

R    1 - 3                              What is 3♥?

S    1 - 2                              How many points for this new suit at the two level?

T    1 - 1 - 2                      How many points for this reverse at the two level?

U   1 - 1 - 3                      How many points for this ‘high reverse’ at the three level?

V   1 - 1NT - 2                   What is 2?

W  1 - 1NT - 3                   What is 3?


A safety play                                                        Board 3 from Wednesday 22nd 


Play quiz: You are in 6NT with loads of entries, how do you play AK983 opposite J7 to make 4 tricks from the suit? : -


Dealer:             AK983                                       West          North         East          South

South               KJ4                                            -                 -                 -               1NT

E-W vul           A                                                pass           2              pass         2   

                        Q964                                         pass           3   (1)      pass         3NT (2)

                                                                              pass           6NT (3)      all pass    

Q54                   N             1062                    

97                   W    E          10862                  

J106543              S              982                      

K10                                   J83                 (1)  2nd suit, natural and forcing.

(2)  With the red suit well stopped this is correct.

J7                                         (3)  Since South has shown no interest in ’s and

AQ53                                         this suit is hardly slam quality, North

                        KQ7                                           correctly bids the slam in NT.




Now the bidding was fairly straightforward (but only 4 pairs out of 9 found 6NT) but the question is how do you play the suit for the required four tricks? What was your answer to the play quiz? You should lead towards the J. The succeeds whenever the ’s are 3-3 or if the is with East. If you are in 7NT (one pair were) then you need all the tricks and the correct play would be to lead the J, this succeeds if west has Q10x but fails here. With this actual distribution it does not matter how you play the ’s as there are always 4 tricks.
Bidding Opener’s
suit                                      Table A

                                                                        West(B)     North         East          South(J)

Board 3 from Monday 20th                                     -                 -                 -               pass

1             1              dbl   (1)    3   (2)

Dealer:             AJ10873                                     pass  (3)     pass           3    (4)    pass

West                108                                             4     (5)     all pass

Love all            Q92                                           

                        97                                              Table B

                                                                              West(B)     North         East          South(J)

Q96                   N             K5                        -                 -                 -               pass

K943              W    E          QJ65                    1             1              dbl   (1)    3   (2)

A7                      S              K10543                dbl   (3)      all pass

K1053                               Q2                      

42                                               The ‘Sensible’ Table

A72                                            West(B)     North         East          South(J)

                        J86                                              -                 -                 -               pass

                        AJ864                                        1             1              dbl   (1)    pass   (2)

2     (6)     pass           3    (7)    pass

pass  (8)     all pass


Table A      (1)  A negative double. In this situation I play it as showing 4+ ’s and 6+ points, just the same as a 1 bid had there been no overcall.

(2)   What did you bid with South hand J in this week’s quiz? I simply do not understand this 3 bid. Kamikaze? Jumping in a ropey 5 card suit under the guy who has opened the suit is simply ludicrous.

(3)   What did you bid with this West hand B in this week’s quiz? Partner’s negative double has presumably shown ’s but the 3 level may be too high. However, 3 is very reasonable and is just a competitive bid. But I did not pass (at Table B).

(4)   This bid is a trifle ambitious but probably best. East does not know of any fit and a 3-level bid here may be pushing it a bit, but pass is surely too feeble.

(5)   But now West has an easy 4 bid now that East has shown values.

Table B      (2)  This South apparently found the same amazing 3 bid.

(3)  West knows that there is presumably a 4-4 fit, but he (actually I) does not know how strong partner is and with a minimal hand there is no reason to think that there is game when both opponents have bid. So West ‘took the money’. I was West and this is my answer to the quiz question B.

The            (2)  Now at the above two tables South made a ridiculous bid which deservedly got him

‘Sensible’         a poor score on both occasions. If South simply keeps quiet (that’s best as it’s not

 Table               good enough for 1NT) and passes then this is what would probably happen: -

(6)   With a minimal hand and 4 card support, West simply supports partner.

(7)   And East has an invitational hand and so invites. A help-suit game try of 3 is an alternative.

(8)   But with an absolute minimum West should not accept (although he might opposite a 3 game try – if you play 3 at (7) as a help-suit game try).


And what happened? With the lie of the cards 4 makes. 4 was bid twice. 3 doubled cost South 500 and was justifiably a poor score for him. Most pairs were in sensible partscores.

The bottom line:

Bidding LHO’s suit naturally is unwise (especially at the 3 level with a ropey 5 card suit)!

Stay Low on mis-fits                                            Board 26 from Wednesday 22nd 


Dealer:             A9853                                        West          North(D)    East          South

East                  7                                                 -                 -                 pass         1

Both vul            AK9742                                     pass           1    (1)      pass         3    (2)

                        7                                                pass           4    (3)      pass         4    (4)

                                                                              pass           4NT (5)      pass         5    (6)

J4                      N             Q1073                  pass           6    (7)      pass         6    (8)

QJ1084          W    E          2                           all pass

10                       S              J853                     

109864                              KQJ2                  






(1)   What did you bid with this North hand D in this week’s quiz? Playing Standard American I think that 2 is clear. Playing 2/1 it is not so clear but I think that a game forcing 2 must be best. This pair play 2/1 and North chose the more conservative 1♠, but the problem with the bid is that South will never realise that North has longer ’s than ’s.

(2)   I think that this South hand is worth the jump

(3)   North simply bids his 2nd (?) suit.

(4)   And South really has nothing better than to repeat the ’s.

(5)   With a mis-fit I think that North should give up now, with either pass or 4. He cannot sign off in 5 because South will assume more ’s than ’s and correct to 5. The unelegant but sensible pass is surely best here. For some reason that is beyond me, North launched into slam mode. With no suit remotely agreed I cannot understand this, especially as the ’s are not self-sufficient and North should know that South will usually revert to ’s anyway.

(6)   3 keycards playing 1430 (’s are the key suit).

(7)   What a stroke of luck – North can now pass and he has landed up in his long suit. But North for some reason thought that slam was there.

(8)   But ‘obviously’ South corrected to 6.


And what happened? 3 pairs stopped in 4 and there were other spurious results. 6 was 3 down for a near bottom and 6 would also have been a poor contract. 5 would have been excellent.

North asked South ‘didn’t you realise that I had more ’s than ’s when I bid 6?’. I don’t see it that way. When you bid one suit and repeat another then it promises 6 in the first bid suit and 5 in the second. That’s ‘standard’ isn’t it?


The bottom lines: -

-         Beware of mis-fits.

-         Bid your longest suit first if you are strong enough.

-         If you have been given a God-given chance to play in a sensible contract (5 here), then take it?



Redouble = the balance of power                        Board 6 from Monday 20th  


Dealer:             1065                                           West(K)       North       East          South(F)

East                  65                                               -                 -                 1    (1)    dbl

E-W vul           98754                                         redbl (2)     pass           pass         1   

                        1052                                          dbl    (3)     1    (4)      1NT (5)    2    (6)

                                                                              dbl             all pass      

AJ87                  N             Q2                       

Q982              W    E          K107                   

KJ2                     S              Q1063                 

98                                      AQ43                  






(1)   I would open 1 but that is personal preference. I believe it’s always better to open 1 when equal length (33 or 44) in the minors if you cannot open 1NT.

(2)   What did you bid with this West hand K in this week’s quiz? Redouble here shows 9+ points and looking for a penalty. With South probably having both majors this must be the best bid.

(3)   Penalties.

(4)   Simply a better spot.

(5)   East has no particular desire to defend 1 doubled and so bids 1NT. This pretty much describes his hand exactly; 12-14 with a doubleton tenace that he wants to protect.

(6)   What did you bid with this South hand F in this week’s quiz? This is 2 bid is unwise, West has said that E-W have the balance of power and North can (probably does and did) have nothing.


And what happened? 2 doubled went for 300 for a good score to E-W. E-W can make 3NT but would they have bid it on their combined 24 count if South had passed at (6)?

The bottom lines: -

-     A redouble declares that you have the balance of power and are usually looking for a penalty double.

A splinter?part 1                                              Board 22 from Monday 20th


What was your answer to sequence R in this weeks quiz? : -


Dealer:             102                                             West          North         East          South

East                  Q43                                            -                 -                 1            pass (1)

E-W vul           72                                               3     (2)     pass           4NT (3)    pass

                        1076542                                    5     (4)     pass           6    (5)    pass

                                                                              6     (6)     all pass      

KQ753              N             AJ984                  

2                     W    E          AK106                

AK93                 S              6                          

Q93                                   AJ8                     






(1)  A Michaels cue bid (2, showing ’s and a minor) would be a good bid with this hand.

(2)  A splinter.

(3)  East was unsure if 3 was natural or a splinter but bid (RKC)Blackwood anyway.

(4)  2 key cards + the trump queen.

(5)  East should be able to work out from the reply that ’s are trumps, but he bid 6 to be on the safe side.

(6)  And West corrected.


And what happened? A fairly unimpressive auction to the top spot. Declarer made 13 tricks when he got the position right.

The bottom lines: -

-         I guess you have to decide on sequence R. Without another agreement I think it’s a splinter. Playing Bergen raises it’s an ambiguous splinter.

A splinter?part 2                                              Board 17 from Wednesday 22nd


Dealer:             K962                                          West          North(C)    East          South

North               AQ1053                                     -                 1              pass         1NT

Love all            A10                                            pass           3    (1)      pass         4    (2)

                        AQ                                             pass           pass           dbl           all pass


Q4                     N             J875                    

98                   W    E          KJ64                   

K753                  S              J2                         

K8432                               J106                    






(1)  What did you bid with this North hand C in this week’s quiz? And what was your answer to V (1 - 1NT - 2♠) in the sequence quiz? 2 here would be a reverse showing a strong hand with 5 ’s and 4 ’s. So to answer the bidding quiz C question, 2 would be a reasonable bid but I cannot really see the point of mentioning the suit and I would simply bid 3NT.

And what was your answer to sequence W (1 - 1NT - 3♠) in the sequence quiz? With no proper agreement I would take it as a splinter – showing shortage, setting ’s as trumps, and inviting slam.

(2)  South has the good A but with a minimum he correctly signed off in 4♥.


And what happened? 4 doubled went for 300 and a clear bottom. 3NT was bid at many tables, sometimes making and sometimes not.

The bottom lines: -

-         A bid of one level higher than a reverse is a splinter.

-         A splinter normally agrees partner’s suit, but if partner has bid NT then it sets your suit as trumps.

A splinter?part 3                                              Board 16 from Monday 20th


What was your answer to sequence S in the sequence quiz? : -


Dealer:             J5                                               Table A

East                  J86                                             West          North         East(A)    South

N-S vul            Q94                                            1              pass           2    (1)    4   

                        K10654                                     pass  (2)     pass           4            5

                                                                              pass  (3)     pass           5            6   

A7643               N             KQ10982             dbl    (4)     all pass

1042               W    E          -                          

AK8                   S              J10752                  Table B

Q8                                     73                        West          North         East(A)    South

-                                                 1              pass           4    (1)    5     

AKQ9753                                  pass           pass           5    (5)    pass

                        63                                               pass           6              6    (6)    dbl

                        AJ92                                          all pass


Table A:     (1)  What did you bid with this East hand A in this week’s quiz? I guess that a 3 splinter is not too bad but I would like a bit more in the way of high cards. The obvious bid is 4 or even 5 (The Law – 11 combined trumps). This East chose 2 which I personally think is horrendous because (a) it is about 6 points below strength for a two level response and (b) you do not want partner to lead a from something like Kx(x) if you end up defending a contract which is very likely if you do not jump in with ’s at a high level straight away.

(2)  Partner’s 2 was game forcing so there’s no need for West to say anything.

(3)  And West was again very patient.

(4)  But this was the limit and out came the double card.

Table B:     (1)  This East chose the obviously sensible 4♠.

(5)  And quite correctly competed to 5 with the known 11 combined trumps.

(6)  But this was poor. Unlike at Table A, this East has described his hand pretty perfectly and he should simply pass now. Partner will expect exactly what East has and if West can defeat 6 then he will double, otherwise he’ll bid 6.


And what happened? At Table A West led the A but then switched to the Q as partner simply had to have the A for his two level bid. 6 doubled making is apparently 1210. E-W at Table B thus did not get an outright bottom.

The bottom lines: -

-         It’s not a good idea to make really silly bids that are far more likely to confuse partner that the opponents.

-         Would you define this East 2  bid at Table A as a psyche? Maybe, but either way it’s a totally ridiculous bid.

-         Bridge is a partnership game. At Table A East was simply fooling his partner. At Table B East unwisely bid his hand again when he had already told partner exactly what he had with his two previous bids.

Another ‘psychic’ bid?                                         Board 4 from Friday 24th


Dealer:             A9                                              Table A

West                5                                                 West          North(H)    East          South

Both vul            K52                                            pass           3NT (1)      all pass    


                                                                              Table B     

Q876                 N             J102                     West          North(H)    East          South

Q2                  W    E          K1086                  pass           1   (1)      pass         1

AJ10876             S              943                       pass           3NT (2)      pass         pass (3)

8                                        J75                       pass






Table A:     (1)  What did you open with this North hand H in this week’s quiz? Now there is a convention called the Gambling 3NT, whereby one opens 3NT to show a long solid minor suit. Obviously I need to cover this in more detail as it looks like not everybody understands it completely. So I’ll write a separate sheet on it soon. Anyway, in short, there are three basic variations of the gambling 3NT. (a) where the 3NT opening guarantees absolutely nothing (no ace or king) outside the suit, (b) when the 3NT opening shows an outside feature, and (c) where the 3NT opening shows decent stuff outside.

                        I assume that this N-S pair play variation (b) or (c). In my personal opinion that is simply ‘gambling’ and I think that the only sensible variation is (a) but I’ll go into it in greater depth at a later date.

Table B:     (1)  This North chose a 1 opening. Now this hand is very strong but not good enough for 2 in my opinion. Playing Benjamin I would open 2 and then bid 3, but playing normal methods I think that 1 is the best opening.

(3)  This is best played as a good hand with a good long minor suit. It’s perhaps a bit of an underbid but I cannot see any alternative if you do not play Benjamin.

(4)  And partner’s 3NT rebid does not invite South to bid on and he absolutely correctly passed.


And what happened? 3NT was the top spot and about ½ of the field reached it. At a later stage one of the opponents at Table A approached me and asked what I would open with Hand H, I replied 1. He then asked what I thought of a gambling 3NT – and I said that I considered it too good. He then suggested that North had psyched. Now normally I simply dismiss these sort of comments, but as this came from the very same person who ‘psyched’ a 2 response with the East hand A on the previous page I just thought I’d let you know the sort of comments that I have to put up with when running the club. The bottom lines: -

-         It’s up to you how you play the gambling 3NT. If it can be as good as this (a very old fashioned Acol style) then you should inform the opponents.

-         If your agreement is something less (and more sensible) then opening 3NT with a strong hand like this may miss slams.

-         I do not feel that anybody who makes a bid with 6 points less than the required minimum should complain about others ‘psyching’ because they may have 3 points more than expected.

Worth a reverse?                                                 Board 20 from Friday 24th


Dealer:             J976                                           Table A

West                J8542                                         West          North         East          South(G)

Both vul            AK8                                           pass           pass           pass         1   (1)

                        9                                                pass           1              pass         2    (2)

                                                                              pass           2              pass         3

AQ85                N             1032                     pass           4              all pass    

Q1093            W    E          K6                       

10765                 S              93                         The ‘Expert’ Table

7                                        KQ8652              West          North         East          South(G)

K4                                              pass           pass           pass         1NT   (1)

A7                                              pass           2   (3)      pass         2

                        QJ42                                           pass           3    (4)      pass         3      (5)

                        AJ1043                                      pass           pass (6)      pass


(1)   What did you open with this South hand G(a) in this week’s quiz? I would open 1NT – both of the doubletons are good and the K may need protecting from the opening lead. But the main reason that I would open 1NT is, as is usually the case, you have no sensible rebid if you do not. This South opened 1

(2)   but then what did you rebid with the South hand G(b) in this week’s quiz? The problem is that it’s not quite good enough for a reverse into 2 - especially with ½ the points outside the two suits and a rebid of 2 is a bit feeble. Obviously you cannot rebid 1NT or 2NT as both promise an incorrect point range. That just leaves the pathetic 2 and that’s why I would open 1NT.


So how do you bid this hand and stay out of game? Assuming that South opens 1NT then there are no established methods for partner to show an invitational hand 5-4 or 4-5 in the majors. But fortunately our experts know all about Quest transfers ….


(1)   A balanced hand in the 15-17 point range, so our expert opens 1NT.

(3)  It is best to always use Stayman with 5-4’s.

(4)  A Quest transfer! Showing 5 ’s, 4 ’s and invitational or better values.

(5)  South’s hand has got progressively worse and completing the transfer is the only way to show a minimum.

(6)  And with miserable majors North has an easy pass. N-S have done well to stay out of game.


And what happened? 4 was not a success. 3NT was dodgy and usually failed when bid. The bottom lines: -

-         With a balanced hand within your 1NT range, open 1NT. Now I realise that 2245 is not balanced but if both doubletons are good and the hand is not worth a reverse then 1NT is usually best with this exact distribution (♠♥♦♣).

-         When partner opens 1NT and you are 5-4 (or 4-5) in the majors with an invitational hand then it’s difficult. If you transfer then it’s game forcing (and I prefer 5-5) and using Stayman and then jumping is usually played as forcing (especially in the States).

-         The best solution is undoubtedly Quest transfers. Look them up on the web.

-         And a word about reverses. North though that South’s reverse promised 19 points, that is incorrect. A normal reverse (sequence T) is a good 15+ and forcing for one bid, a ‘high’ reverse (sequence U) promises around 19+ and is game forcing.

4NT quantitive?                                                   Board 18 from Wednesday 22nd


Dealer:             K109                                          West          North(E)    East          South

East                  AQ32                                         -                 -                 pass (1)    1  (2)

N-S vul            Q10                                            pass           4NT (3)      pass         5  (4)

                        AK52                                         pass           6NT           all pass


J72                    N             A53                     

K7                  W    E          J109854              

9653                   S              4                          

J943                                   Q107                  






(1)  I would open 2, especially at this vulnerability. Yes, I know that some people have requirements like two honours in the suit or whatever, but with these solid intermediates I still think that 2 is the best bid with this hand. I guess it’s a matter of style?

(2)  Would you open this South hand? It complies with the rule of 20 and since it has the suit (so a nice rebid over a 1 response) I think it’s fine for 1.

(3)   What did you bid with this North hand E in this week’s quiz? I think that the simple 1 stand out a mile – and if there is a fit then it’s off to slam. What was your answer to Sequence N in the sequence quiz? North apparently intended it as a quantitative NT bid.

(4)   South not surprisingly assumed it was (RKC) Blackwood and showed his 2 key cards. With one more than partner might reasonably expect, 5 (showing the Q) would be a reasonable bid, but South did not want to cloud the issue when he had no idea what the reasoning behind partner’s strange leap to 4NT was.


And what happened? This time North’s egocentric bidding paid off when the K was onside and he somehow managed 12 tricks.

The bottom lines: -

-         Never deny a 4 card major.

-         4NT over an opening 1 level suit bid is Blackwood unless you have some strange sort of agreement to the contrary.

-         And I would take a 4 bid at (3) (so sequence P in the sequence quiz) as a splinter agreeing ’s and very obviously seeking slam as it’s gone past 3NT.

-         I can see absolutely no need to leap off to the 4 level in the first round of bidding (except as a pre-emptive bid). With a very good hand take it nice and easy and learn more about partner’s hand.

Bidding Sequence Answers



L    1  1  dbl  3                  The first dbl is negative, what is the 2nd double? Penalties,

      dbl                                     opener opened a real suit and is sitting over the bidder.

M   1  1  dbl  3                  What is 3, weak or strong? Weakish, just raising partner’s

      3                                      suit in a competitive auction.

There is no intervention in the following sequences: -


N   1 - 4NT                           What is 4NT? (RKC) Blackwood. But a leap off to the 4-level in situations like this with a good hand is usually a poor bid.

P    1 - 4                              What is 4? I would take it as a splinter agreeing ’s and looking for slam and asking partner to cue bid Obviously responder must have excellent ’s and good shape, especially if the 1 opening only promised 3 cards. An unusual bid.

R    1 - 3                              What is 3? A splinter, agreeing ’s and showing shortage.

S    1 - 2                              How many points for this new suit at the two level? Playing Acol,

8+; playing Standard American 11+, playing 2/1 it’s 12+.

T    1 - 1 - 2                      How many points for this reverse at the two level? This is sometimes called a ‘low reverse’. It should be a very good 15+.

U   1 - 1 - 3                      How many points for this ‘high reverse’ at the three level? The high reverse is game forcing so about 19+ including distribution.

V   1 - 1NT - 2                   What is 2? A reverse (so a good 15+), most play it as forcing.

W  1 - 1NT - 3                   What is 3? Since 2 is a reverse I take it as a splinter setting opener’s suit as trumps.

Bidding Quiz Answers


Hand A:     4, or even 5. 4 is probably best (with the intention of going 5 if pushed).

Hand B:      3 or dbl. Partner has values and presumably 4 ’s. But this hand is minimal and game is probably not there with both opponents bidding. So I chose to take the money with double but I would not argue with 3 (a weakish bid that is simply competing in partner’s presumed suit).

Hand C:     (a)  3NT. A reverse into 2 is forcing but I cannot see the point as partner has denied 4 ’s.

(b)   No.

Hand D:     (a)  2 - with the intention of bidding ’s twice later.

                  (b)  No. I would stretch this hand to a 2/1 response of 2 as a 1 response followed by repeated bid implies more ’s than ’s.

Hand E:      1. I cannot see any other remotely sensible bid. The hand is easily strong enough for a strong jump to 2 but the suit is nowhere near good/long enough.

Hand F:      Pass. Partner is bust. He has simply corrected ’s to ’s and to bid on is suicide. LHO has doubled twice and has plenty more double cards left in the box, if you bid 2 you will simply go for a number.

Hand G:     (a)  1NT. I think that 1NT is best as you do not have a decent rebid if you open 1.

(b)   Dunno. Having opened 1 you have a problem now. 1NT is 12-14 and the hand is much too good. 2NT is 18-19. A reverse into 2 is possible but I would like a slightly stronger hand and more points in the two suits. The only other remotely sensible rebid is 2 but this hand is a bit good.

Playing a weak NT, of course, you can happily open 1 as you have a 1NT rebid (15-16) available.

Hand H:     1. It’s not good enough for 2 and it’s far too good for a gambling 3NT in most people’s style. Playing Benjamin twos I would open 2 followed by 3.

Hand J:       Pass. It’s not quite good enough for 1NT opposite an overcall in my opinion. Bidding 2 is just silly, bidding 3 (two people did) is simply ridiculous.

Hand K:     Redbl. 9+ points and the balance of power. You can subsequently double either ’s or ’s for penalties.



Bidding Sequence Answers are on the previous page.